In late October, UK's Channel 4 produced a series entitled
Race and Intelligence: Science's Last Taboo. Why is it "science's last taboo"? Perhaps because a multitude of evidence supports the viewpoint opposed by Ivory Tower elites. Unfortunately, I'm unable to view the series in America. Instead, I'll respond to the
familiar arguments put forth by Jonathan Marks, a professor at UNC-Charlotte.
Anthropologists have long since abandoned discussions of innate racial aptitudes as quaintly antiquated mindsets...there is no valid scientific reason to think that human groups differ at all significantly in their intrinsic abilities.
See it's true because he said so. Can anyone think of a "valid reason human groups differ significantly in their intrinsic abilities"? Same reason why blacks have dark skin. They're from Africa where it's sunny. Why are East Africans great distance runners with significantly enlarged lung capacity? It derives from their environment. This is the most basic concept of evolutionary biology. Why doesn't it apply to humans?
Human biological variation is continuous, not discrete.
I could say the same for climate zones. But are you going to wear shorts in central Pennsylvania during January just because it's not
discretely disconnected from Florida?
Clustering populations is arbitrary.
Not really.
Noah Rosenberg parsed individuals into five global groups that correspond with the traditional races. In his algorithm, separating individuals into five groups (as opposed to one, two, or three) provided the most accurate and robust solution. In a comment thread, Dr. Marks claimed Rosenberg's results were orthogonal to race. I doubt that considering this quote from the introduction:
In one of the most extensive of these studies to date, considering 1,056 individuals from 52 human populations, with each individual genotyped for 377 autosomal microsatellite markers, we found that individuals could be partitioned into six main genetic clusters, five of which corresponded to Africa, Europe and the part of Asia south and west of the Himalayas, East Asia, Oceania, and the Americas.
Here's another article, from 'Galtonian', showing selection pressure in human "populations" or in un-PC speak, races. And
one more. If the populations were truly arbitrary, then they would cluster people from Sweden with people from the Congo. That doesn't happen.
And one more, from Rosenberg again. He looked at 4199 alleles and found that almost half of them were present in all five regions stated above. While this shows the interconnectedness of humanity, it also implies that many genes, such as those known to influence intelligence, are only present in, say Asian and European populations.
While modern genetic tests aggregate clients according to their mitochondrial DNA or Y chromosome, the test is often less revealing than simply looking in the mirror.
Yes and this results from selection pressure based on environment. Fittingly, physical appearance coincides very well with continent of origin. This is a result of
divergent evolution on continental scales.
Populations are biologically real, not races.
Races, populations, extended families? Does it matter what we call it? People can be classified, through just DNA analysis, into groups that coincide with continents. Again, see Rosenberg study and
NYT article above where scholars support the traditional concept of race.
There is much more variation within groups (polymorphism) than between groups (polytypy).
Lewontin's fallacy repeated. As I posted last summer, why don't these Boasians make the same argument concerning the male and female height distributions? Or black and white income distributions?
Racial classification is historical and political, and does not reflect natural biological patterns.
Continuously repeating a falsehood does not make it true.
Humans have little genetic variation.
Humans are also 98% identical to chimps. Should we began treating them as our equals?
Racial issues are social-political-economic, not biological.
So why don't we ponder these socio-economic issues. Blacks have seen marked improvement in every possible aspect of quality of life since the end of slavery. They've been granted voting rights, equal pay, an end to discrimination, then a complete reversal of the zeitgeist, with laws designed explicitly to motivate their collective gain. They dominate popular culture, benefit from reverse discrimination laws, and are completely immune from criticism.
Yet,
the post-1960's black-white IQ gap, along with NAEP scores, has been essentially constant at one standard deviation. Almost every single intelligence examination, including
MCAT, LSAT, Bar Exam, ACT,
military intelligence exams, and
NYC SHSAT exam, show the constant one standard deviation gap. If racial disparities derive from social and political phenomena, then shouldn't desegregated schools and access to more academic and occupational opportunities have spurred a significant and stable narrowing of the achievement gap?